CCNP ENCOR Final Exam 1

1. CEF is composed of which components? (Choose two.)
2. In a Layer 2 network, what information is used to forward network traffic?
3. The switch port with the lower STP port priority is more preferred. (True of False)
4. What Cisco command is used to prevent a router from becoming the designated router for a network segment?
5. Which is techniques are used by OSPF for filtering of routes?
6. Which BGP command advertises a summary route to prevent link-flap processing by downstream BGP routers?
7. What is a benefit of data modeling languages like YANG?
8. Transit routing between a multihomed enterprise network and a service provider is generally not recommend in which scenarios? (Choose 3.)
9. What happens to a route that does not match the PrefixRFC1918 prefix list when using the following route map?
route-map QUESTION deny 10
  match ip address prefix-list PrefixRFC1918
route-map QUESTION permit 20
  set metric 200
10. Which protocols are essential to multicast operation? (Choose two.)
11. Which of the following should not be dynamically advertised via an IGP into a GRE tunnel?
12. Which of the following are encryption protocols that should be avoided? (Choose two.)
13. LISP separates IP addresses into which of the following? (Choose two.)
14. The VXLAN specification defines a data plane and a control plane for VXLAN. (True or False)
15. A receiver picks up an RF signal from a distant transmitter. Which one of the following represents the best signal quality received? Example values are given in parentheses.
16. Suppose that an 802.11a device moves away from a transmitter. As the signal strength decreases, which one of the following might the device or the transmitter do to improve the signal quality along the way?
17. A centralized wireless network is built with 1 WLC and 32 lightweight APs. Which one of the following best describes the resulting architecture?
18. If an AP tries every available method to discover a controller but fails to do so, what happens next?
19. An omnidirectional antenna usually has which of the following characteristics? (Choose two.)
20. When a client moves its association from one autonomous AP to another, it is actually leaving and joining which one of the following?
21. A client roams from controller A to controller B. If it undergoes a Layer 3 roam, which one of the following best describes the role of controller A?
22. Open Authentication requires the use of which one of the following?
23. When PSK authentication is used on a WLAN, without the use of an ISE server, which of the following devices must be configured with the key string? (Choose two.)
24. Suppose an enterprise offers a wireless network that guests can use but only after they read and accept an acceptable use policy document. Which one of the following methods can inherently handle this process?
25. To troubleshoot a single wireless client, which one of the following bits of information would be most helpful in finding the client device in a wireless LAN controller?
26. Suppose an end user tried to join a wireless network several minutes ago. The WLC Client View screen shows the client to be in the Association state but not the Authentication state. Which one of the following best describes the client’s current condition?
27. Suppose you access a WLC and search for the name of a specific AP for which users have complained about problems. When you look at the 5 GHz information about the AP, you notice that it is using channel 60 and has 5 dBm transmit power, 65 clients, −90 noise level, 1% channel utilization, and the Air Quality value 10. Which of the following conclusions would be most accurate?
28. Which technologies are used to deploy a simplified campus design? (Choose all that apply.)
29. What is the main reason SD-Access uses VXLAN data encapsulation instead of LISP data encapsulation?
30. Which of the following components are part of the SD-Access fabric architecture? (Choose all that apply.)
31. Which of the following is the single pane of glass for the SD-WAN solution?
32. What is the main function of the vBond orchestrator?
33. Which of the following allows for matching key fields?
34. How does Cisco DNA Center Assurance simplify troubleshooting and diagnostics? (Choose two.)
35. What are some reasons that debugging is used in OSPF? (Choose three.)
36. Which of the following is the Cisco threat intelligence organization?
37. What is the Threat Grid?
38. Which of the following EAP methods supports EAP chaining?
39. Without Cisco ISE, it would not be possible to implement pxGrid. (True or False)
40. The command aaa authorization exec default group ISE-TACACS+ if-authenticated enables authorization for all terminal lines on the router, including the console line.
41. Which of the following features was developed specifically to protect the CPU of a router?
42. Which of the following AAA functions can help log the commands executed by a user on a network device?
43. What is a container?
44. What is a virtual switch (vSwitch)?
45. Which of the following are container engines? (Choose all that apply.)
46. What does CRUD stand for?
47. When using GitHub, what is the purpose of a repository? (Choose three.)
48. Which of the following is in JSON data format?
49. What is the HTTP status code for Unauthorized?
50. What configuration management software is built on Python? (Choose two.)

 

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